Hello all,
does anyone know what % we have to pass with the comp ati exam? Mrs Azevedo said this am that we have to pass with a level two!! Ummm their is no level identified on results?

Let me know !!

kristie

Speakers

The results of the Speakers for Graduation are in!!!

Welcome Speech : Steve Tabin

Reflection Speech: Erin Shelby

Congrats! I know that both of you will do a fine job in reprsenting our class!!!

N10 Breast Cancer Car Wash

Great Job Ladies!!!! We raised $700!!!

More from N10 Breast Cancer Car Wash

N10 Breast Cancer Car Wash

Speakers for Grad

Hello everyone, Here are the nominees for the Welcome speech and the Reflection speech.

Reflection--Erin Shelby, Adrianne Cathey, Rajpreet Kaur, Jennifer McCasland, Annie Atkinson, Stacey Kulm, Jamika Williams, Gaye Valdez, Maria Trine, Melissa Maness, Elizabeth Arc, and Megan Warren.

Welcome-Adrienne Cathey, Todd Fedler, Maria Cervantes, Erin Shelby, Jamika Williams, Anne Atkinson, Steve Tabin, Michelle McDaniel, Stacey Kulm, Rajpreet Kaur, Polly Dodds, Jamie Mauk, Jody Vickery, Joy Serna, Gaye Valdez, Megan Wamen.On Monday 10-20-08 Will be the "Official" vote. I will be putting Voting Slips in the back of the room and you may vote after the test.Please E-mail me at krispy1231@verizon.net or kreale757@students.deltacollege.edu if you would like to add someone to the list of nominees. Or if you see your name on the list and do not wish to participate. The deadline will be friday 10-17-08 to make any final changes.
thank you,
kristie

Speakers for Ceremony

Hey guys/gals!

Just wanted to get input into what you thought about the voting process for the speakers. Do you think it would be a good idea if on Monday we vote on a piece of paper who you would like to speak then I'll compile a list on the blog then we can vote the person with the most votes wins! of course we will have to make sure that they want to speak first then we will vote!! Does this make sense? Let me know.
kristie

N10 EXAM 2 REVIEW... FROM TERRY AZEVEDO

Hi everyone,

Terry emailed and asked if I could post this review to our blog for everyone to access.  Have a great week and good luck studying!

Nursing 10 Exam #2 Review:

 

    1. Healthy people 2010- Review applications of age appropriate health indicators.

    2. Primary Preventions for school age children- chronicity deterrents.

    3. Family Assessment- Parts of the whole.

    4. Environmental Assessments r/t age/developmental stage

    5. Learning needs of the teenage populations.

    6. Readiness vs. Need to Know~ teaching/learning

    7. Review and be able to apply the concepts of case management, case finding, managed             care and discharge planning.

    8. Health concerns and risk factors of infants, toddlers, preschoolers, schoolagers, teens,             young adults, middle-aged adults and the elderly.

    9. Differentiate between the domains of learning~ cognitive, psychomotor and affective.

  10. Differentiate the processes of the community assessment and apply to scenarios.

  11. Who is at major risk for HIV by age group and why?

  12. Primary, secondary and tertiary preventions- study applications according to high risk                 groupsand age groups.

  13. What causes health disparities in the United States? What are they? Why? What are we         doing about them?

  14. 2030- what will the population of the US look like according to age groups and where should the focus of care be directed?

  15. Age-related health care issues~ increased risks associated with the age; preventions related to risks...

 

These are broad areas...also look at the objectives for each chapter (they are the same as those in the syllabus).                         

Free NCLEX Study Questions

http://www.testprepreview.com/nclex_practice.htm
(25 questions with answers)

http://www.caring4you.net/tests.html

http://www.4tests.com/exams/examdetail.asp?eid=78
(49 Questions with answers and rationales)

http://www.informit.com/articles/article.aspx?p=402459
(250 questions with answers and rationales)

http://www.testtrade.com/nclex1.pdf
(20 questions with answers)

http://www.nclexinfo.com/nclex_practice1-10.htm
(40 questions with answers)

THE SCOPE OF RN PRACTICE --BRN

http://www.rn.ca.gov/pdfs/regulations/npr-b-03.pdf

Hey guys here is "AN EXPLANATION OF THE SCOPE OF RN PRACTICE
including standardized procedures" that I came across on the BRN web site. Check it out when you have some "free time."

N10 Final Advance Directives

"Advance Directives – Terminology from LMH Website

Artificial Nutrition and Hydration is when food and water are given to a person through a tube or needle because the person is no longer able to swallow.

Autopsy is an examination done on a body to find out the cause of death.

Comfort Care is care that helps to keep a person comfortable and control pain.

CPR (Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation) is emergency treatment that tries to restart a person's breathing or heartbeat after they have stopped. CPR can include pushing on the chest, putting a tube down the throat, and other emergency steps.

Health Care Appointment is an advance directive in which you appoint someone to make medical decisions for you if the time ever comes when you cant make them yourself. It is also called a "Health Care Proxy" or a "Durable Power of Attorney for Healthcare."

Life Sustaining Treatment is any medical treatment that is used to keep a person from dying. A breathing machine, CPR, and artificial nutrition and hydration are examples of lifesustaining treatments.

Health Care Directive is an advance directive in which you say what forms of medical treatment you do or do not want if you become terminally ill or are in a persistent vegetative state.

Organ and Tissue Donation is when a person permits his/her organs (such as eyes or kidneys) and other parts of the body (such as skin) to be removed after death to be transplanted to another person or used for education or research.

Persistent Vegetative State is when a person is unconscious with no hope of regaining consciousness even with medical treatment. The body may move and eyes may be open, but as far as anyone can tell, the person can't think or respond.

Being Terminally Ill means having an injury or illness that has no cure and from which doctors expect the person to die, even with medical treatment.

Posted by Bonnie Boss at 22:10"

Link to '06 Blog Check it Out...

http://deltarnstudents.blogspot.com/search?updated-max=2006-10-22T21%3A34%3A00-07%3A00&max-results=20

This is the page on the '06 blog that has info on the N10 FINAL

A few N8 Tips ('06 Blog)

"Hey all you 2nd rotation OB peeps....greetings and good luck in N8! The theory lecture goes verbatim with the syllabus so you don't have to take class notes from stratch (yeah!). Ms. Batson's tests are not just all multiple choice. There are a lot of fill-in and short answer questions; know your interventions and rationales (as always!). The third test was the hardest and longest because it had the most writing involved. There's a lot of busy work in clinical but the 3 most time-consuming things are: 1) drug worksheet that has to be filled out before your first clinical day, 2) the neonatal theory worksheet (what's normal in a head-to-toe newborn assessment v. what's not normal)...this has to be filled out before your assigned day in the nursery and 3) the oral presentation (because you have to include recent/pertinent research related to your topic). If anyone has any questions, post them on the blog....have fun!"

Posted by Jean S

Genogram Software

http://www.smartdraw.com/


Colorful and fairly easy. Only three prints with watermark on the trial version. But we only need to print two items.

-Debbie

NCLEX Questions ('06 Blog)

Worried about passing the National Council Licensure Examination (NCLEX), the test from the National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN) that your state board of nursing will use to determine whether you are ready to practice nursing? The more practice questions you do, the more confident you'll feel. Try these, then review the answers and rationales that follow. Experts recommend taking many practice questions before the NCLEX, so take advantage of review courses, books, and other products to help you succeed and pass the NCLEX.

1. The surgeon orders cefazolin (Ancef) 1 gram to be given intravenously at 7:30 a.m.; the client's surgery is scheduled at 8:00 a.m. What's the primary reason to start the antibiotic exactly at 7:30?

a. Legally, the medication has to be given at the ordered time.

b. The antibiotic is most effective in preventing infection if it's given 30 to 60 minutes before the operative incision is made.

c. The postoperative dose of Ancef needs to be started exactly 8 hours after the preoperative dose.

d. The peak and titer levels are needed for antibiotic therapy.

2. Which of the following clients is most at risk for latex allergies?

a. A woman who's admitted for her seventh surgery.

b. A man who works as a sales clerk.

c. A man with well-controlled type 2 diabetes.

d. A woman who's having laser surgery.

3. The nurse receives the preoperative blood work report for a client who's scheduled to undergo surgery. Which of the following laboratory findings should she report to the surgeon?

a. Red blood cells, 4.5 million/mm³

b. Creatinine, 2.6 mg/dL.

c. Hemoglobin, 12.2 g/dL.

d. Blood urea nitrogen, 15 mg/dL.

4. When the nurse administers intravenous midazolam hydrochloride (Versed), the client shows signs of an overdose. Which of the following interventions should the nurse be prepared to implement first?

a. Ventilate with an oxygenated Ambu bag.

b. Defibrillate the patient.

c. Administer 0.5 mL 1:1000 epinephrine.

d. Titrate flumazenil (Romazicon).

5. A client who had a thoracoscopy sustained an injury secondary to the surgery position. Which of the following injuries would he demonstrate?

a. foot drop

b. knee swelling and pain

c. tingling in the arm

d. absence of the Achilles reflex
Posted by Bonnie Boss at 19:39 1 comments

N8 Textbook Quizes Chapters 4-6 ('06 Blog)

From the Evolve website
Wong, et al.: Maternal Child Nursing Care, 3rd Edition
icon Review Questions

Chapter 04

1.
A 42-year-old woman asks the nurse about mammograms, now that she is "getting older." The nurse should tell her that:


A. The American Cancer Society recommends mammograms every 1 to 2 years for women ages 40 to 49.
B. The best time to perform a mammogram is just prior to a menstrual period.
C. Regular mammograms reduce the need to perform BSE.
D. Mammograms can confirm the diagnosis for breast cancer.


Chapter 05

1.
When obtaining a reproductive health history from a female patient, the nurse should:


A. Limit the time spent on exploration of intimate topics
B. Avoid asking questions that may embarrass the patient
C. Use only accepted medical terminology when referring to body parts and functions
D. Explain the purpose for the questions asked and how the information will be used

2.
The nurse should include questions regarding sexuality when gathering data for a reproductive health history of a female patient. Which of the following principles should guide the nurse when interviewing the patient?


A. An in depth exploration of specific sexual practices should be included for every patient
B. Sexual histories are optional if the patient is not currently sexually active
C. Misconceptions and inaccurate information expressed by the patient should be corrected promptly
D. Questions regarding the patient's sexual relationship is unnecessary if she is monogamous

3.
The nurse should refer the patient for further testing if which of the following were noted upon inspection of the breasts of a 55-year-old woman:


A. Left breast is slightly smaller than the right breast
B. Eversion (elevation) of both nipples
C. Bilateral symmetry of venous network which is faintly visible
D. Small dimple located in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast

4.
The nurse is assessing a woman's breast self-examination technique (BSE). Which of the following actions indicate that a woman needs further instruction regarding BSE?


A. Performs every month, on the first day of her menstrual period
B. Uses the pads of her fingers when palpating each breast
C. Inspects her breasts while standing before a mirror and changing arm positions
D. Places a folded towel under right shoulder and right hand under head when palpating right breast

5.
Which of the following is correct concerning the performance of a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear?


A. The woman should not douche, use vaginal medications, or have intercourse for at least 24 hours prior to the test
B. It should be performed once a year beginning with the onset of puberty.
C. A lubricant such as Vaseline should be used to ease speculum insertion.
D. The specimen for the Pap smear should be obtained after specimens are collected for cervical infection

6.
A 65-year-old woman, G 6 P 6006 is complaining of increasing stress incontinence and pelvic pressure and fullness. Pelvic examination reveals a bulging in the anterior vaginal wall. This woman is most likely experiencing:


A. Uterine prolapse
B. Rectocele
C. Cystocele
D. Vesicovaginal fistula


Chapter 06

1.
An effective relief measure for primary dysmenorrhea would be:


A. Reduce physical activity level until menstruation ceases.
B. Begin taking prostaglandin synthesis inhibitors on the first day of the menstrual flow
C. Decrease intake of salt and refined sugar about one week before menstruation is about to occur
D. Use barrier methods rather than the oral contraceptive pill (OCP) for birth control

2.
Self-care instructions for a woman following a modified radical mastectomy would include that she:


A. Wear clothing with snug sleeves to support her affected arm.
B. Use depilatory creams instead of shaving the axilla of her affected arm.
C. Expect a decrease in sensation or tingling in her affected arm as her body heals.
D. Empty surgical drains once a day or every other day.

3.
When providing care to a young single woman just diagnosed with acute pelvic inflammatory disease, the nurse should:


A. Point out that inappropriate sexual behavior caused the infection
B. Position the woman in a semi-Fowler position
C. Explain to the woman that infertility is a likely outcome of this type of infection
D. Tell her that antibiotics need to be taken until pelvic pain is relieved

4.
The CDC recommended medication for the treatment of chlamydia would be:


A. Doxycycline
B. Podofilox
C. Acyclovir
D. Penicillin
Posted by Bonnie Boss at 22:17 1 comments

N8 Textbook Quiz 2 ('06 Blog)

From the Evolve website
Wong, et al.: Maternal Child Nursing Care, 3rd Edition
icon Review Questions Chapter 02

1.
Which statement made by the nurse would indicate that she/he is practicing appropriate family-centered care techniques? Choose all appropriate responses.


A. The nurse allows the mother and father to make choices when possible.
B. The nurse informs the family about what is going to happen. The nurse instructs the patient's sister, who is a nurse, that she cannot be in the room during the birth.
C. The nurse commands the mother what to do.
D. The nurse provides time for the partner to ask questions.

2.
Families in the launching stage of the family life cycle are involved in accomplishing which of the following developmental tasks?


A. Renegotiating the marital relationship as a dyad
B. Establishing financial independence
C. Maintaining own and/or couple functioning and interests in the face of physiologic decline
D. Negotiating tasks related to childrearing and household maintenance

3.
The term used to describe a situation in which a cultural group loses its identity and becomes part of the dominant culture is called:


A. Assimilation
B. Cultural relativism
C. Acculturation
D. Ethnocentrism

4.
A Native American woman gave birth to a baby girl 12 hours ago. The nurse notes that the woman keeps her baby in the bassinet except for feeding and states that she will wait until she gets home to begin breastfeeding. The nurse recognizes that this behavior is most likely a reflection of:


A. Delayed attachment
B. Embarrassment
C. Disappointment that the baby is a girl
D. A belief that babies should not be fed colostrum

5.
The nurse is planning care for a patient with a different cultural background. Which of the following would be an appropriate goal?


A. Strive to keep the patient's cultural background from influencing health needs.
B. Encourage the continuation of cultural practices in the hospital setting.
C. In a nonjudgmental way, attempt to change the patient's cultural beliefs.
D. As necessary, adapt the patient's cultural practices to her health needs.

6.
Which of the following is descriptive of the family systems theory?


A. The family is viewed as the sum of individual members.
B. When the family system is disrupted, change can occur at any point in the system.
C. Change in one family member cannot create change in other members.
D. Individual family members are readily identified as the source of a problem.
Posted by Bonnie Boss at 22:08 1 comments

Quiz 1 from N8 Textbook ('06 Blog)

From Evolve website
Wong, et al.: Maternal Child Nursing Care, 3rd Edition
icon Review Questions Chapter 01

1.
When caring for pregnant women, the nurse should keep in mind that violence during pregnancy:


A. Affects more than 25% of pregnant women in the United States
B. Is associated with complications of pregnancy such as bleeding
C. Increases a pregnant woman's risk for preeclampsia
D. Has decreased in incidence as a result of better assessment techniques and record keeping

2.
Examples of alternative healing modalities include which of the following?


A. Biofeedback
B. Antibiotics
C. Osteopathy
D. Acupressure
E. Dance therapy

3.
The term used to describe legal and professional responsibility for practice for maternity nurses is:


A. Evaluation
B. Accountability
C. Ethics
D. Collegiality

4.
The family structure consisting of parents and their dependent children living together is known as a(n):


A. Binuclear family
B. Reconstituted family
C. Nuclear family
D. Extended family

5.
A woman is giving birth to her third child in a setting that allows her husband and other two children to be actively involved in the process. The nurse caring for the woman must also consider the husband and family as patients and work to meet their needs. This type of setting is termed:


A. Family-centered care
B. Emergency care
C. Hospice care
D. Individual care

6.
Which of the following has had the greatest impact on reducing infant mortality in the United States?


A. Improvements in perinatal care
B. Decreased incidence of congenital abnormalities
C. Better maternal nutrition
D. Improved funding for health care

7.
The nurse admits Amanda to the labor unit. During the admission procedure, the nurse obtains Amanda's blood pressure, pulse, respirations, temperature, and fetal heart rate. The nurse is using which part of the nursing process?


A. Assessment
B. Planning
C. Implementation
D. Evaluation

8.
Evidence-based practice is best described as:


A. Gathering evidence of mortality and morbidity in children
B. Meeting physical and psychosocial needs of the family in all areas of practice
C. Using a professional code of ethics as a means for professional self-regulation
D. Providing care based on evidence gained through research and clinical trials

9.
After admitting a new patient to the maternity unit, the nurse writes a plan of care. This process of determining outcomes and interventions is which stage of the nursing process?


A. Assessment
B. Planning
C. Implementation
D. Evaluation
Posted by Bonnie Boss at 22:00 1 comments

Some Stuff From the 2006 Pinned Blog

Scope of Practice for RN

Here is an exerpt from the CA Nurse Practice Acts

Article 2. Scope of Regulation 2725. Legislative Declaration; Practice of Nursing; Functions

1. In amending this section at the 1973-74 session, the Legislature recognizes that nursing is a dynamic field, the practice of which is continually evolving to include more sophisticated patient care activities. It is the intent of the Legislature in amending this section at the 1973-74 session to provide clear legal authority for functions and procedures that have common acceptance and usage. It is the legislative intent also to recognize the existence of overlapping functions between physicians and registered nurses and to permit additional sharing of functions within organized health care systems that provide for collaboration between physicians and registered nurses. These organized health care systems include, but are not limited to, health facilities licensed pursuant to Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 1250) of Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code, clinics, home health agencies, physicians' offices, and public or community health services.
2. The practice of nursing within the meaning of this chapter means those functions, including basic health care, that help people cope with difficulties in daily living that are associated with their actual or potential health or illness problems or the treatment thereof, and that require a substantial amount of scientific knowledge or technical skill, including all of the following:
   
   1. Direct and indirect patient care services that ensure the safety, comfort, personal hygiene, and protection of patients; and the performance of disease prevention and restorative measures.
   2. Direct and indirect patient care services, including, but not limited to, the administration of medications and therapeutic agents, necessary to implement a treatment, disease prevention, or rehabilitative regimen ordered by and within the scope of licensure of a physician, dentist, podiatrist, or clinical psychologist, as defined by Section 1316.5 of the Health and Safety Code.
   3. The performance of skin tests, immunization techniques, and the withdrawal of human blood from veins and arteries.
   4. Observation of signs and symptoms of illness, reactions to treatment, general behavior, or general physical condition, and (A) determination of whether the signs, symptoms, reactions, behavior, or general appearance exhibit abnormal characteristics; and (B) implementation, based on observed abnormalities, of appropriate reporting, or referral, or standardized procedures, or changes in treatment regimen in accordance with standardized procedures, or the initiation of emergency procedures.
3. "Standardized procedures," as used in this section, means either of the following:
   
   1. Policies and protocols developed by a health facility licensed pursuant to Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 1250) of Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code through collaboration among administrators and health professionals including physicians and nurses.
   2. Policies and protocols developed through collaboration among administrators and health professionals, including physicians and nurses, by an organized health care system which is not a health facility licensed pursuant to Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 1250) of Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code.
   
   The policies and protocols shall be subject to any guidelines for standardized procedures that the Division of Licensing of the Medical Board of California and the Board of Registered Nursing may jointly promulgate. If promulgated the guidelines shall be administered by the Board of Registered Nursing.
4. Nothing in this section shall be construed to require approval of standardized procedures by the Division of Licensing of the Medical Board of California, or by the Board of Registered Nursing.

2725.1. Dispensing Drugs or Devices; Registered Nurses; Limitations

Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a registered nurse may dispense drugs or devices upon an order by a licensed physician and surgeon when the nurse is functioning within a licensed clinic as defined in paragraphs (1) and (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 1204 of, or within a clinic as defined in subdivision (b) or (c) of Section 1206, of the Health and Safety Code.

No clinic shall employ a registered nurse to perform dispensing duties exclusively. No registered nurse shall dispense drugs in a pharmacy, keep a pharmacy, open shop, or drugstore for the retailing of drugs or poisons. No registered nurse shall compound drugs. Dispensing of drugs by a registered nurse shall not include substances included in the California Uniform Controlled Substances Act (Division 10 (commencing with Section 11000) of the Health and Safety Code). Nothing in this section shall exempt a clinic from the provisions of Article 3.5 (commencing with Section 4063) of Chapter 9.

Create yours at BlingyBlob.com!

Another Picture...

SNA Meeting

PLEASE NOTE THE TIME CHANGE!

Pink Day at the Ports!

KAPLAN REVIEW

There has been a change in the due date for the balance for the Kaplan review.

All payments for balances due for the Kaplan Review are due by
Friday May 2, 2008 12:00pm. Payments need to be by check or money order(this is the easiest way to pay!) made out to Kaplan. This is the last day that myself or Kim Thompson will be taking payments
(no exceptions)!

Cost Breakdown:
Original cost= $499
With Kaplan group discount of $100= $399
Delta College one time $100 discount if you applied = $ 299
(Remember to subtract your $50 deposit you paid)


***Credit card payments will need to be called in to Kaplan by the student wishing to pay by credit card. (When I receive the information from Scott, I will announce the information in both NS 8 and 9 when to call and the number to call.)

As far as a receipt, you will receive a receipt along with your book from Kaplan when your balance is paid in full. Kaplan will ship it to the address you put on your application.

Any questions please feel free to contact me at candrtinney@sbcglobal.net

N7 Cardiac Pharmacology Practice Links

N7 Pharmacology Positive Inotropic Agents

N7 Pharmacology Antidysrhythmic Agents

N7 Pharmacology Antianiginal Agents

N7 Pharmacology Antihypertensive Agents

N7 Pharmacology Diuretic Agents

LODDING FOR DAVIS NCLEX REVIEW IN JUNE

Here is a lodging option for those attending the Davis Nclex review on June 3, 4, 5 & 6.

Hampton Inn
2700 Juniper Serra Blvd
Daly City, CA
650-755-7500
Price $134 + tax
Check in 3PM

We have a block of rooms set aside but you MUST make your reservation by May 23rd in order to hold the price of $134 + 10% tax per room. This price includes a room with 2 beds and lodging for 1 to 4 persons, parking, breakfast and internet service. You can check out the rooms by going to http://www.hampton.com/ , then go to the Daly City location. This hotel is 2.5 miles away from where the review is being held.

When you call to make your reservation be sure to let them know you are with the San Francisco Davis Nclex Review/Stockton Students. This will guarantee the rate.

Can't wait to see you all there!

SNA Meeting

A Nurse in Training - Dameron Hospital 1930's

Take a moment to see how things have changed and how they have not:


Part 1
http://www.brightcove.tv/title.jsp?title=791890166&channel=151802639&lineup=505319645

Part 2
http://www.brightcove.tv/title.jsp?title=791792981&channel=151802639

Lodging option for those attending SF Davis Review

http://www.sfhostels.com/rates/

Reasonable and they offer group rates as well.

Upcoming SF Davis NCLEX Review

Hey everybody! Congratulations on your hard work and dedication which has brought you this far!  You are almost there, can you see the light?

I just want to talk about the Davis NCLEX review course in SF.  There were 45 from my class that went. We went after graduation and never had the opportunity that you have to participate in their program in our 3rd semester. This is a great presentation that is put on, and the advantage of going early is that you will get to use and put into practice, everything that you will learn there, throughout your last semester and beyond. If you wait until after you graduate to attend, you will lose out on the opportunity of  using new test taking strategies, study methods, memory tricks and critical thinking skills that you will learn there. You will also gain access to a huge test bank which encompasses every subject enabling you to find and identify incorrect thought processes and possible test taking weaknesses. You will then be able to correct them before it is too late and time to take THE BIG ONE!

The SF review is a great way to reinforce and cement in your mind, all of the hard work from your past and present learning experiences from Peds, Psych and med surg,  before you start to forget, as you will by the time you get through the 4th semester. 

The 4th semester is very stressful in a busy sort of way which makes it very hard to review and retain your  N4, N5, N6 and N7 knowledge. These subjects will be presented by multiple Nurse speakers who will review subject matter while teaching you how to think and choose the correct answers. They are very entertaining and memorable in the interactive way that they present, plus they will give you nursing rationale which other NCLEX test courses do not. You will get to practice every kind of possible test question type that might be thrown your way. Showing you how to break them down, eliminate the incorrect choices and when all else fails show you how to make the best choice when you do not have a clue what the answer might possibly be. 

A big plus in favor of taking this course,  is the fact that it is only half of the cost of many of the other popular NCLEX courses.

For us, it was a blast! We had loads of fun bunking in together and it was a welcome break from all of our schooling.

 

If you decide this is for you, you need to contact Heidi ASAP because your special priced extended deadline ends April 4th!

No matter what you all decide, I wish you the best! I can't wait to see all of you out on the floors.  

New NCLEX Review Deadline

CORRECTION TO PREVIOUS BLOG!!!

I contacted Davis NCLEX review and convinced them to give us an extension on submitting our registration forms and money due to the holiday on Monday. So for those of you interested in attending the review, you have until noon on April 4th to submit your registration forms/money to Judy Lee in the nursing office or myself. Please email me if you have any questions (hjamyers@yahoo.com)

JUNE 4-DAY NCLEX-RN REVIEW

Hello everyone,
I am cordinating the paperwork for the "highly recommended" Davis Nclex review being held at San Francisco State University on June 3, 4, 5, & 6, 2008. Unfortunately, I just received their information (sorry for the late notice) and there is an impending deadline of MARCH 31ST to submit registration forms and money. We must have at least 10 people to sign up by March 31st in order to secure a rate of $200 per person otherwise the rate will increase to $250 per person. I have spoken with some 4th semester students who attended this review (about 40 from their class attended) and they really enjoyed the review. They found it helpful in identifying their strengths and weaknesses as this review not only covers testing taking strategies but nursing content.
Davis Nclex review is also offering an online follow up review in January 2009 for those who attend the June 2008 review. They couldn't give me a set price but I was told it would be no more than $100. The review would be offered online for 30 days so students would not have to go back to San Francisco. It think this is a great idea considering most of us will be getting ready to sit for boards in January and this will be a good refresher.

You can go to their website at http://nclex.reviewfornurses.com
for the registration forms and more information regarding their services. Registration forms and payment can be submitted to me or to Judy Lee in the nursing office no later than March 31st at 11am. Please feel free to email me with any questions at hjamyers@yahoo.com.

Here is some general info regarding DAVIS NCLEX REVIEW:

Live NCLEX® Review

A 4-day Classroom NCLEX-RN® Review Course - featuring guest lecturers and author(s) of DAVIS'S NCLEX-RN® SUCCESS, 2e book and ATI NurseNotes Series. PASS THE FIRST TIME (or get free individual help from a nurse educator)

Successful! - 98% passing rate.
Fast! - Get what you need in 4 days.
Complete! - Covers all frequently tested areas.

THIS COURSE IS DIFFERENT FROM OTHERS BECAUSE:

You also get a FOCUSED, SUPPLEMENTAL, ONLINE REVIEW program.
It's FUN --- strategy sessions, with special focus on test-tips for Medical-Surgical, Pediatrics and Psychiatric questions.

TOPICS COVERED:

NURSING CARE OF CHILDREN
NURSING CARE OF EMOTIONAL & BEHAVIORAL PROBLEMS
NURSING CARE OF THE CHILDBEARING FAMILY
NURSING CARE OF THE ADULT CLIENT
PHARMACOLOGY & DIETS
TEST-TAKING TIPS THAT WORK!
SAMPLE TEST QUESTIONS, including ALTERNATE ITEM FORMAT
MANAGEMENT OF CARE: DELEGATION AND PRIORITY

DATES/TIME
June 3, 4, 5 & 6, 2008
8AM - 9AM Daily check-in
9AM - 5:30PM Lecture

LOCATION
Creative Arts Building
San Francisco State University

KAPLAN REVIEW

Just a reminder:

3/24/08 @ 1:00pm in the EMSTI classroom, Scott from "KAPLAN" will give a one hour presentation on the benefits of KAPLAN, please spread the word! Even if you have attended other NCLEX reviews come and here what Scott has to say. This is a comment left on a previous blog form a recent graduate.

Harrison Cole said...Hi guys! For those who don't know me I just graduated last Dec. I took the Kaplan review and thought it was practically identical to the RN-NCLEX!!! I also did the Davis review which is great for content review. However, the Kaplan "Decision Tree" and "NCLEX-Land Rules" really made the difference come test time. To be honest, you know what you know by test day and you need a strong practice and test-taking strategy! Good luck on your last semester and your preparation for the RN-NCLEX! Sincerely, Harrison Cole, RN11:11 PM

KAPLAN REVIEW

Scott form KAPLAN will be giving a 1 hour presentation about the benefits of taking the KAPLAN review

March 24th at 1:00pm - EMSTI classroom off of March Lane
(Please do not park in the front of the building per NS department , this parking is for the customers and not for students)!!!!

Even if you are not 4th semester, come and get your questions answered and consider taking the Kaplan review being offered sometime in June. It is never to early to get a jump start on preparing for NCLEX!

******Please pass the word to all semesters!

Any questions please contact Cynthia Tinney 4th semester KAPLAN rep at candrtinney@sbcglobal.net

N7 Pharmacology Diuretic Agents

Found at the EVOLVE website

Lilley: Pharmacology and the Nursing Process, 4th Edition

Multiple Choice Review Questions Chapter 25

1.           

Which of the following laboratory values should be assessed to pick up an adverse response to hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL)?

A.            Sodium levels

B.            Glucose levels

C.            Calcium levels

D.            Chloride levels

2.           

When teaching a patient why spironolactone (Aldactone) and furosemide (Lasix) are prescribed together, the nurse bases teaching on the knowledge that:

A.            Moderate doses of two different types of diuretics are more effective than a large dose of one type

B.            This combination promotes diuresis but decreases the risk of hypokalemia

C.            This combination prevents dehydration and hypovolemia

D.            Using two drugs increases osmolality of plasma and the glomerular filtration rate

3.           

The nurse will check the laboratory values of a patient who has started on furosemide (Lasix) because a known side effect of this medication is:

A.            Hyperchloremia

B.            Hypernatremia

C.            Hypokalemia

D.            Hypophosphatemia

4.           

A patient is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia and has a history of chronic renal insufficiency. The physician orders furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg twice a day because it:

A.            Will not cause potassium loss

B.            Is effective in treating persons with pulmonary congestion

C.            Is effective in treating persons with renal insufficiency

D.            Will increase pO2 levels

5.           

A patient taking spironolactone (Aldactone) requests assistance with dietary choices. The nurse would recommend all of the following except:

A.            Lean meat

B.            Bananas

C.            Apples

D.            Squash

6.           

The nurse would question the use of mannitol on which of the following patients?

A.            67-year-old patient who ingested a poisonous substance

B.            21-year-old head injury patient

C.            47-year-old patient with anuria

D.            55-year-old patient receiving cisplatin to treat ovarian cancer

7.           

Acetazolamide (Diamox) is used to treat all of the following except:

A.            Edema

B.            Metabolic acidosis

C.            Seizures

D.            Acute glaucoma

8.           

When preparing to administer furosemide (Lasix) intravenously, the nurse plans implementation based on knowledge that the medication should be administered no faster than:

A.            2 mg/min

B.            6 mg/min

C.            12 mg/min

D.            20 mg/min

9.           

Potassium-sparing diuretics may cause which of the following adverse reactions?

A.            Hyperkalemia, GI upset

B.            Confusion, drowsiness, ataxia

C.            Gynecomastia, decreased libido, impotence

D.            All of the above

10.           

A patient asks about taking potassium supplements while taking chlorothiazide (Diuril). The nurse 's best response would be:

A.            "You are correct about your concern. I will make sure that you get some right away."

B.            "I will call your doctor and let him know of your concern."

C.            "Potassium supplements are usually not necessary with this type of diuretic."

D.            "You are on a diuretic that is potassium-sparing, so there is no need for extra potassium."

11.           

The nurse would expect to administer which diuretic to treat a patient diagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism?

A.            Spironolactone (Aldactone)

B.            Amiloride (Midamor)

C.            Triamterene (Dyrenium)

D.            Furosemide (Lasix)

12.           

The nurse prepares to administer which diuretic to treat a patient suffering from acute pulmonary edema?

A.            Spironolactone (Aldactone)

B.            Amiloride (Midamor)

C.            Triamterene (Dyrenium)

D.            Furosemide (Lasix)

13.           

When assessing for therapeutic effects of mannitol, the nurse would expect to see:

A.            Decreased intracranial pressure

B.            Decreased excretion of therapeutic medications

C.            Increased urine osmolality

D.            Decreased serum osmolality

14.           

When assessing a patient for side effects of triamterene (Dyrenium), the nurse would specifically monitor for:

A.            Hypokalemia

B.            Hypoglycemia

C.            Hyperkalemia

D.            Hypernatremia

15.           

The patient asks the nurse why the doctor prescribed acetazolamide (Diamox), a diuretic, to treat gout. The nurse responds based upon the knowledge that:

A.            Diamox causes an alkaline urine, which facilitates the elimination of uric acid

B.            Diamox increases alkalinity of the urine, thus decreasing the formation of uric acid

C.            Diamox causes an acid urine, which facilitates the elimination of uric acid

D.            Diamox decreases alkalinity of the urine, thus decreasing the formation of uric acid

N7 Pharmacology Antihypertensive Agents

Found at the EVOLVE website

Lilley: Pharmacology and the Nursing Process, 4th Edition

 

Multiple Choice Review Questions Chapter 24

1.           

Which of the following statements, if made by your patient, signifies that additional patient teaching regarding antihypertensive treatment is required?

A.            “I will check my blood pressure every day and take my medication when it is over 140/90.”

B.            “I will include rest periods during the day to help me tolerate the fatigue my medicine may cause.”

C.            “I will change my position slowly to prevent feeling dizzy.”

D.            “I will not mow my lawn until I see how this medication makes me feel.”

2.           

An annoying side effect of ACE inhibitors that may be minimized by switching to an angiotensin receptor-blocking agent includes:

A.            Orthostatic hypotension

B.            A dry, nonproductive cough

C.            Fatigue

D.            Hypokalemia

3.           

Which of the following should not be taken concurrently with ACE inhibitors?

A.            Lasix

B.            Morphine

C.            Colace

D.            Potassium

4.           

Direct-acting vasodilators have which of the following effects on the heart rate?

A.            Heart rate decreases

B.            Heart rate remains significantly unchanged

C.            Heart rate increases

D.            Heart rate becomes irregular

5.           

The nurse would plan to administer which of the following calcium channel blocking agents to a patient with cerebral arterial spasms following a subarachnoid hemorrhage?

A.            Amlodipine (Norvasc)

B.            Diltiazem (Cardizem)

C.            Nimodipine (Nimotop)

D.            Verapamil (Calan)

6.           

The nurse would question an order for a calcium channel-blocking agent in a patient with:

A.            Angina pectoris

B.            Increased intracranial pressure

C.            Hypotension

D.            Dysrhythmia

7.           

Which of the following statements would be appropriate during discharge teaching for a patient receiving clonidine (Catapres)?

A.            “Your blood pressure should be checked by a physician at least once a year.”

B.            “Increasing fluid and fiber in your diet can help prevent the side effect of constipation.”

C.            “Excessive exercise or prolonged standing is not a problem with clonidine as it can be with other antihypertensive agents.”

D.            “If you are having difficulty with the common side effect of excessive drooling, notify your physician so your dosage can be adjusted.”

8.           

When explaining different medication regimens to treat hypertension during a community education program, it would be accurate to state that African-Americans probably respond best to which combination of medications?

A.            ACE inhibitors and diuretics.

B.            Diuretics and calcium antagonists

C.            Diuretics and beta-blockers

D.            ACE inhibitors and beta-blockers

9.           

Labetalol (Normodyne) and carvedilol (Coreg) are classified as:

A.            Beta-blocking agents

B.            Alpha1-blocking agents

C.            Combined alpha- and beta-blocking agents

D.            Calcium channel blockers

10.           

During assessment of a patient diagnosed with pheochromocytoma, the nurse auscultates a blood pressure of 210/110 mm Hg. The nurse would expect to administer which of the following medications?

A.            Nadolol (Corgard)

B.            Phentolamine (Regitine)

C.            Dobutamine (Dobutrex)

D.            Verapamil (Calan)

11.           

When administering nitroprusside (Nipride) intravenously, the nurse ensures that:

A.            The medication is protected from light

B.            The IV infuses no faster than 2 mcg/min

C.            The patient’s blood pressure is monitored every 2 hours

D.            The initial bolus is infused over 5 minutes

12.           

The nurse would monitor for reflex tachycardia in a patient receiving which classification of antihypertensive agents?

A.            Calcium channel blockers

B.            Cardioselective beta-blockers

C.            Nonselective beta-blockers

D.            Direct-acting vasodilators

13.           

A patient prescribed prazosin (Minipress) does not have a history of hypertension. The nurse would assess for what disorder for which this medication is also used?

A.            Pulmonary emboli

B.            Obstructive benign prostatic hyperplasia

C.            Seizure disorder

D.            Subarachnoid hemorrhage

14.           

ACE inhibitors and angiotensin receptor blockers both work to decrease blood pressure by:

A.            Preventing the formation of angiotensin II

B.            Enhancing sodium and water resorption

C.            Increasing the breakdown of bradykinin

D.            Inhibiting aldosterone secretion

15.           

A priority nursing diagnosis for patient’s taking an antihypertensive medication would include:

A.            Alteration in cardiac output related to effects on the sympathetic nervous system

B.            Knowledge deficit related to medication regimen

C.            Fatigue related to side effects of medication

D.            Alteration in comfort related to nonproductive cough

Answers: 1a, 2b, 3d, 4c, 5c, 6c, 7b, 8b, 9c, 10b, 11a, 12d, 13b, 14d, 15a

N7 Pharmacology Antianiginal Agents

Found at the EVOLVE website

Lilley: Pharmacology and the Nursing Process, 4th Edition

Multiple Choice Review Questions Chapter 23

1.           

Which of the following instructions should be included in the discharge teaching for a patient discharged with a transdermal nitroglycerin patch?

A.            “Apply the patch to a nonhairy, nonfatty area of the upper torso or arms.”

B.            “Apply the patch to the same site each day to maintain consistent drug absorption.”

C.            “If you get a headache, remove the patch for 4 hours and then reapply.”

D.            “If you get chest pain, apply a second patch right next to the first patch.”

2.           

Nitrates relieve angina pain by reducing preload, which is:

A.            Blood volume within the heart

B.            Pressure within the heart

C.            Pressure against which the heart must pump

D.            Oxygen demand of the heart

3.           

Which is a NOT a common side effect of nitroglycerin?

A.            Blurred vision

B.            Flushing

C.            Headache

D.            Hypotension

4.           

Which of the following statements by the patient demonstrates a need for further education regarding nitroglycerin?

A.            “If I get a headache, I should keep taking my nitroglycerin and use Tylenol for pain relief.”

B.            “I should keep my nitroglycerin in a cool, dry place.”

C.            “I should change positions slowly to avoid getting dizzy from the nitroglycerin’s effect on my blood pressure.”

D.            “I can take up to five tablets at 3-minute intervals for chest pain.”

5.           

Calcium channel blockers reduce myocardial oxygen demand by reducing afterload, which is:

A.            Blood volume within the heart

B.            Pressure within the heart

C.            Pressure against which the heart must pump

D.            Contractility of the heart muscle

6.           

Which of the following nitrate preparations or dosage forms has the longest duration of action?

A.            Sublingual nitroglycerin

B.            Sublingual isosorbide dinitrate

C.            Oral isosorbide dinitrate

D.            Transdermal nitroglycerin patch

7.           

In order to prevent the development of tolerance, the nurse instructs the patient to:

A.            Apply the nitroglycerin patch every other day

B.            Switch to sublingual nitroglycerin when the patient’s systolic blood pressure elevates to >140 mm Hg

C.            Apply the nitroglycerin patch for 14 hours each and remove for 10 hours at night

D.            Use the nitroglycerin patch for acute episodes of angina only

8.           

Before administering isosorbide mononitrate (Imdur), a priority assessment would include:

A.            Serum electrolytes

B.            Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine

C.            Blood pressure

D.            Level of consciousness

9.           

The patient asks how nitroglycerin should be stored while traveling. The nurse’s best response would be:

A.            “You can protect it from heat by placing the bottle in an ice chest.”

B.            “It’s best to keep it in its original container away from heat and light.”

C.            ‘You can put a few tablets in a resealable bag and carry in your pant’s pocket.”

D.            “It’s best to lock them in the glove compartment of your car to keep them away from heat and light.”

10.           

Patient teaching regarding sublingual nitroglycerin should include which of the following statements:

A.            “You can take up to five doses every 3 minutes for chest pain.”

B.            “Chew the tablet for the quickest effect.”

C.            “Keep the tablets locked in a safe place until you need them.”

D.            “Sit or lie down after you take a nitroglycerin tablet to prevent dizziness.”

11.           

What is the best way to prevent tolerance to nitrates when using the transdermal patches?

A.            Leave the old patch on for 2 hours when applying a new patch

B.            Apply a new patch off for 24 hours once a week

C.            Leave the patch off for 24 hours once a week

D.            Remove the patch at night for 8 hours, and then apply a new patch in the morning

12.           

Which of the following statements indicates that the patient understands discharge teaching about nitroglycerin?

A.            “I will need to refill my prescription once a year in order to maintain potency.”

B.            “I will need to keep the nitroglycerin stored in the bottle it comes in.”

C.            “I will take a nitroglycerin tablet every 15 minutes until my chest pain is gone.”

D.            “I should take a nitroglycerin tablet 2 hours before I want to engage in activity that will cause chest pain.”

13.           

A patient who is taking sublingual nitroglycerin is complaining of flushing and headaches. The nurse’s best response would be:

A.            “This is a normal response to your chest pain.”

B.            “Stop taking the nitroglycerin because you are probably allergic to it.”

C.            “These are the most common side effects of nitroglycerin. They should subside with continued use of nitroglycerin.”

D.            “These symptoms are not related to your sublingual nitroglycerin. You should notify your doctor for diagnostic testing.”

14.           

When applying nitroglycerin ointment, the nurse should:

A.            Use the fingers to spread the ointment evenly over a 3-inch area

B.            Apply the ointment to a nonfat, nonhairy part of the upper torso

C.            Massage the ointment into the skin

D.            Apply two thick lines of ointment over the prescribed measured area on the nitroglycerin paper

15.           

When titrating intravenous nitroglycerin, the nurse monitors:

A.            Blood pressure

B.            Heart rate

C.            Chest pain

D.            All of the above

16.           

A patient receiving intravenous nitroglycerin at 20 mcg/min complains of dizziness. Nursing assessment reveals a blood pressure of 85/40 mm Hg, heart rate of 110 beats/min, and respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min. The nurse’s best response would be to:

A.            Assess the patient’s lung sounds

B.            Decrease the intravenous nitroglycerin by 10 mcg/min

C.            Increase the intravenous nitroglycerin by 10 mcg/min

D.            Recheck the patient’s vital signs in 1 hour

17.           

Nitrates relieve angina pain by reducing afterload, which is:

A.            Blood volume within the heart

B.            Pressure within the heart

C.            Pressure against which the heart must pump

D.            Oxygen demand of the heart

18.           

During patient teaching, the nurse explains that nitroglycerin relieves chest pain primarily by:

A.            Decreasing the workload of the heart

B.            Vasoconstriction of the coronary arteries

C.            Increasing oxygen demand of the heart

D.            Reducing anxiety related to pain

N7 Pharmacology Positive Inotropic Agents

Found at the EVOLVE website

Lilley: Pharmacology and the Nursing Process, 4th Edition

Multiple Choice Review Questions Chapter 21

1.           

An expected outcome associated with the administration of digoxin is:

A.            Increased heart rate

B.            Decreased heart rate

C.            Decreased urinary output

D.            Decreased blood pressure

2.           

The patient has a serum digoxin level drawn and it comes back 0.4 ng/mL. The nurse recognizes that this is:

A.            Below the therapeutic level

B.            A therapeutic level

C.            Above the therapeutic level

D.            A toxic level

3.           

A patient is taking digoxin 0.25 mg and furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg. When the nurse enters the room, the patient states, “There are nice yellow halos around the lights.” An appropriate nursing action at this point would be to:

A.            Evaluate the patient for other symptoms of digoxin toxicity

B.            Withhold the furosemide

C.            Administer the medication as ordered

D.            Document the findings and reassess in 1 hour

4.           

The patient weighs 44 lb and is to be digitalized. The digitalizing dose is to be 0.03 mg/kg in three divided doses. How much will the nurse administer per dose?

A.            0.2 mg

B.            0.3 mg

C.            0.4 mg

D.            0.6 mg

5.           

The therapeutic effects of digoxin include:

A.            Positive inotropic, negative chronotropic, and negative dromotropic

B.            Positive inotropic, positive chronotropic, and negative dromotropic

C.            Negative inotropic, negative chronotropic, and negative dromotropic

D.            Positive inotropic, negative chronotropic, and positive dromotropic

6.           

Which of the following would alert the nurse to suspect early digitalis toxicity?

A.            Loss of appetite with slight bradycardia

B.            Heart rate <40>

C.            Tachycardia and diarrhea

D.            Confusion and visual changes

7.           

Phosphodiesterase inhibitors have an added advantage in treating heart failure because they cause a positive inotropic effect and:

A.            Vasoconstriction

B.            Vasodilation

C.            Platelet inhibition

D.            Bronchodilation

8.           

The nurse reviews a patient’s laboratory values and finds a digoxin level of 10 and a serum potassium level of 6.2. The nurse would notify the health care provider and anticipate administering:

A.            K+ aliquots

B.            Atropine

C.            Epinephrine

D.            Digoxin immune FAB

9.           

Assessment of a patient receiving a positive inotropic agent would include which of the following? (Choose all that apply)

A.            Lung sounds

B.            Daily weights

C.            Apical pulse

D.            Serum electrolytes

10.           

Which of the following drugs is used for short-term management of severe heart failure?

A.            Milrinone (Primacor)

B.            Atropine

C.            Digoxin immune FAB

D.            Propranolol (Inderal)